Wireless bridge

[Qinn]

Over the last couple years I used 3 very cheap, but stable TL-wr841Nv8 as wireless bridges (repeater disabled). The TL-wr841Nv8 got an IP (Gargoyle calls it the Bridge IP) that's outside the DHCP range of the router, but in the same subnet as it connects to (let's say 192.168.5.5). Now any device I connected to one of the ports of this wireless bridge got an IP on mac address from the router that's in the same subnet (192.168.5.x). This concept was cristal clear to me.

I was using version 1.8.1 until "krack" came along and I had to upgrade this wireless bridge, thanks for the hard work and quick response guys! I downloaded the firmware using the gargoyle-ispy 2017-October-17 22_47.torrent and flashed it. All went well and I was on build 1.9.x

I entered the nice looking GUI and entered every thing as I used to, disabled the repeater, scanned the SSID to join. So all looked well, but I could not reach the wireless bridge and the device that was connected to one of it's ports.

I looked at my router and TL-wr841Nv8 seemed to got an IP from the DHCP server (I thought I gave it one)? When I looked at the Overview in this TL-wr841Nv8 I saw it got an relay IP address? I looked at some posting and found that the developers have changed the wireless bridge setup to https://wiki.openwrt.org/doc/recipes/relayclient
which I do not understand, maybe someone can explain to me how to keep "everything" in the same subnet?

thanks in advance cheers Qinn

[d3fz]

Please take a look at this tutorial and this thread, and see if it's helpful.

[Lantis]

Look at the diagram in the tutorial carefully.

The router will use an IP outside the subnet as a bridge IP. This address is established as the point where the Relay operates. The Relay ensures all clients end up on the desired subnet.

[Qinn]

Thanks Lantis and d3fz for your quick reply's.

The TP-Link TL-WR841N/NDv8 has the following setup:
For the bridge IP I have chosen IP address 172.16.0.1 (I am not using this private subnet anywhere). It joins an AP 192.168.5.10, which is connected through a switch to a router. I has a dhcp server that gives ip addresses on mac address. It gives the Relay IP address 192.168.5.4 and I have set the LAN Gateway address to the router interface 192.168.5.1. (btw I can fully access the TL-WR841N/NDv8 using the IP 192.168.5.4)

When I connect a device to one of the ports of the TP-Link TL-WR841N/NDv8 I would expect it got the IP which I have reserved for it's mac address from the DHCP server, but none is given.

Can you point me in the right direction or tell me what I am doing wrong?

Cheers Qinn

[Qinn]

Reporting back.

I upgraded to 1.10.0, but still no IP through DHCP for the client, strangely bridge got on Relay IP Address?

Then I changed the wireless bridge to another AP2 and to my surprise the client got an IP? Then I looked for the difference between those 2 AP's and AP1 had no gateway into the config, there was only 0.0.0.0. So I change this to 1.1.1.1 and client on the wireless bridge got an IP. It seems it doesn't matter what the gateway IP om the AP is (as 1.1.1.1 is just a ridicule) , it just can't be zero. All the clients now get an IP from the router that's connected to the AP and with it the right GW.

Thanks an cheers for all help.

Qinn

[Lantis]

Your gateway should be 192.168.5.10 if I understand your earlier posts correctly.
I confess, I don’t know the implications of the Gateway setting.